Suppose $X$ is a path-connected space, and we attach a 1-cell to it with some attaching map $f : \{0,1\} \to X$ and call the resulting space $Y$.
Is $Y$ homotopy equivalent to $X \vee \mathbb{S}^1$?.
My idea was the following: let $g : [0,1] \to X$ be a path in $X$ with endpoints $g(0) = f(0)$ and $g(1) = f(1)$. Then we can stretch out the image of $g$ by attaching a strip $[0,1] \times [0,1]$ to $X$ with attaching map $h : [0,1] \times \{0\} \to X$ defined as $h(t,0) = g(t)$, the resulting space $Z$ is then homotopy equivalent to $Y$ because we can deformation retract $Z$ onto $Y$ by pushing down this added strip.
We can then push the endpoints of the attached 1-cell to the top of this strip and then squeeze the top together, and then deformation retract the squeezed strip back to the image of $g$. The resulting space is then $X \vee \mathbb{S}^1$. (See this picture for the steps visualized.)
Each step is a homotopy equivalence so this would imply that $Y$ and $X \vee \mathbb{S}^1$ are homotopy equivalent. Is this proof correct?