Let's take $N$ i.i.d. stochastic variables $X_i$, where $X_i \sim Bin(n,p)$.
Taking inspiration from here, we should have the following facts:
- $Var(X_i)=np(1-p)$.
- The sample statistics $M(X_1,...,X_n)=\frac{\sum_i X_i}{N}$ is a sufficient and complete statistics.
- The MLE estimator for $np(1-p)$ is $T_{MLE}=nM(1-M)$.
Combining these points we have that the $T_{MLE }$ is also UMVUE by the Lehmann-Scheffe' lemma.
Now we have also the following fact:
- The (corrected) sample variance $S^2=\frac{1}{N-1}\sum_i{(X_i-M)^2}$ is an unbiased estimate of $Var(X_i)$.
From Lehmann-Scheffe' we should have then by consistency:
$$E[S^2\mid M]=nM(1-M)$$
My questions:
Is my reasoning correct or am I applying some theorem in a wrong way ?
If the reasoning is correct, what would be a direct derivation of the final result ? Is the formula trivial for some reason I do not see now ?