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So this question was recently asked in my exam

If A and B are two square matrices of same order such that $AB=A$ and $BA=B$ then $A^2=?$

Here's what I did

As $$AB=A$$ $$\implies A^{-1}AB=A^{-1}A $$ (pre multiplying by $A^{-1}$) $$ \implies I B = I $$ or $$B=I$$

Here I is identity matrix of same order as A or B.

Similarly we can have from second equation $$A=I$$

Thus it follows $$A^2 = I^2 =I$$

So$$A^2 = I$$

But this was considered wrong and the correct answer was given as A as: $$A^2 = AA$$ $$\implies A^2 = (AB)(A) $$ As $AB=A$ $$\implies A^2 = A(BA) $$ $$\implies A^2 = A B $$ As $BA=B$ $$\implies A^2 = A $$ As $AB=A$

So $$A^2 = A$$

My question:

Why was my response considered wrong when actually both the answers are equivalent as $A= I$ ? Are they correct in saying my answer is wrong?

1 Answers1

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What you have shown is that if $A$ is invertible, then $A=I$.

However, $A$ need not be invertible.

For example, it is possible that $A=B=0$. So yes, they are right to say that your answer is wrong.

You can multiply matrices of compatible size to both size if it exists.

Siong Thye Goh
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