Recall that the Taylor series of $\frac{1}{a+x} = \frac{1/a}{1+x/a}$ is:
$$\frac{1}{a} - \frac{x}{a^2} + \frac{x^2}{a^3} - O(x^4)$$
as this is an infinite geometric series with first term $\frac{1}{a}$ and common ratio $-\frac{x}{a}$.
Now $\frac{a-x}{a+x} = \frac{2a}{a+x} -1$. The Taylor series of this is $2a$ times the first series or $\frac{2a}{a} - \frac{2ax}{a^2} + \frac{2ax^2}{a^3} - \cdots$ or $1 - \frac{2x}{a} + \frac{2x^2}{a^2} - \cdots$.
Therefore the Taylor series of $f(x)$, discarding higher-order terms is: $$x \left(1 - \frac{2x}{1} \right) \left(1 - \frac{2x}{2} \right) \left(1 - \frac{2x}{3} \right) \cdots \left(1 - \frac{2x}{10} \right) $$
$$= x \left(1 - \left(\frac{2x}{1} + \frac{2x}{2} + \cdots + \frac{2x}{10} \right) + O(x^2) \right)$$
$$= x - x^2 (\text{some constant} ) + O(x^3)$$
and therefore $f'(x)$ equals:
$$= 1 - 2x (\text{some constant} ) + O(x^2)$$
which when evaluated at $x=0$ gives $1$. Thus $f'(0) = 1$.