I have a very quick question regarding matrices. Consider $ x= \left( \begin{array}{cc} 1 & 2 \\ 0 & 1 \\ \end{array} \right) $ and $ y = \left( \begin{array}{cc} 1 & 0 \\ 2 & 1 \\ \end{array} \right)$
Clearly no power except $0$ of $x$ or $y$ is equal to $I$, and clearly $x^k y^j$ is not identity for nonzero $k,j$. My question: Is any product $x^{k_1}y^{k_2}...x^{k_{n-1}}y^{k_n}$ not equal to $I$? I suspect so, but I am not sure how to prove it. It seems like induction but I don't see how it should go