I know $\sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty}(n+1)x^n = \frac{1}{(1-x)^2}$ but does changing to $\sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty}(n+1)(0.8x)^n$ make a difference? wolfram seems to be giving me a much more complicated result.
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wouldn't be $\sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty}(n+1)(0.8x)^n=\frac{1}{(1-0.8x)^2}$ right? – janmarqz Apr 01 '20 at 20:28
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No, the result should be just as simple. If you make the substitution $y=0.8x$ you can apply your earlier result. This works because $x$ is a constant, not a variable.
sammy gerbil
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