Let me first give a definition.
By a separation of a topological space $X$, I mean a pair $U, V$ of disjoint non-empty subset of $X$ whose union is $X$.
My question revolves around this well-known theorem of connectedness in topology. Let me quote the theorem word-to-word from Munkres'.
Theorem $1$: The union of a collection of connected subspaces of $X$ that have a point in common is connected.
What is bothering me is for a set, say, $S$ to be connected, $S$ has to first be a topological space. The statement of this theorem is implicitly asserting that the union of a collection of connected subspaces of $X$ is itself a topological space.
At first I thought I misinterpreted this incorrectly. But then in the proof of Theorem $1$ above, Munkres wrote:
We (want to) prove that the space $Y = \bigcup A_\alpha$ is connected. Suppose that $Y = C \cup D$ is a separation of $Y$. The point:
To have a separation $Y$ needs to be a topological space. So, it must for sure implicitly asserting that $\bigcup A_\alpha$ is a topological space. I would like to ask whether this is a true statement until I stumbled upon this Wikipedia page which says: yes it is a topological space.
But then, reading the content of that page, I realized that that is way beyond the current scope of my topological adventure. So I would like to ask, are there gaps of my topological knowledge which I overlooked or is this a fact that needs to be taken just with faith for now?