I am interested in proving that the integral $$\int_{0^+}^1\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)\,\mathrm d x$$ converges. Can someone show me step by step please?
Asked
Active
Viewed 60 times
-2
-
2It is continuous on $(0,1]$ and bounded. So yes. – copper.hat Apr 18 '20 at 20:50
1 Answers
2
Hint. Make the substitution $xy=1.$ Then the integral becomes $$\int_1^{+\infty}\frac{\sin y}{y^2}\mathrm dy,$$ which you should be able to show converges.
Allawonder
- 13,327