Can I infer the convergence of a monotonically increasing sequence with first term a>0 using the fact that the ratio of consecutive terms tends to 1?
Thanks in advance.
Can I infer the convergence of a monotonically increasing sequence with first term a>0 using the fact that the ratio of consecutive terms tends to 1?
Thanks in advance.
For a positive, monotonically increasing sequence $(x_n)$ of real numbers, consider the statements $(\mathbf{A}),(\mathbf{B})$ given by
$\qquad (\mathbf{A})\qquad(x_n)\;$ converges.
$\qquad (\mathbf{B})\qquad{\displaystyle{\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{x_{n+1}}{x_n}=1}}$.
The implication$\;(\mathbf{A}){\implies}(\mathbf{B})\;$holds since if $(x_n)$ converges to a limit, $L$ say, then $L > 0$ and $$\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{x_{n+1}}{x_n}=\frac{L}{L}=1$$ However the converse implication$\;(\mathbf{B}){\implies}(\mathbf{A})\;$doesn't hold. As a simple counterexample, for the sequence $1,2,3,...$ we have $$ \lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{x_{n+1}}{x_n} =\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{n+1}{n} =\lim_{n\to\infty} 1+\frac{1}{n} =1+0 =1 $$ but $(x_n)$ approaches infinity, so doesn't converge.