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in my current discrete mathmatics course I have this calculation at the end of a proof:

$$\frac {k(k+1)+2(k+1)}2=\frac {(k+1)(k+2)}2$$

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I dont under stand why 2*k ends up being k? I guessing there is some calculations being abstracted away, can someone please exaplain?

lulu
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s3j80
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  • I think it would be clearer if you let $x=k+1$ and write the left hand as $\frac {kx+2x}2$. Then, all you are doing is factoring out the $x$ in the numerator. – lulu Apr 22 '20 at 10:00
  • nice, but what is was looking for was more what happens inbetween the two, when you distribute 2, why does 2*k become k? – s3j80 Apr 22 '20 at 10:02
  • I don't understand. $kx+2x=(k+2)x$. That's just the distributive law. There is no sense in which $2k$ becomes $k$. – lulu Apr 22 '20 at 10:05
  • me neither this is what im wondering about – s3j80 Apr 22 '20 at 10:06

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With colors: $$\frac{\color{blue}{k}\color{red}{(k+1)}+\color{green}{2}\color{red}{(k+1)}}{2} =\frac{(\color{blue}{k}+\color{green}{2})\color{red}{(k+1)}}{2}$$ The red part $\color{red}{(k+1)}$ is seen in both terms of the left-hand-side, so can be "moved out" to the right.

Jeppe Stig Nielsen
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Just factor out the $(k+1)$ term

or if you prefer expand and then factor:

$$\frac {k(k+1)+2(k+1)}2=\frac {k^2+3k+2}2=\frac {(k+1)(k+2)}2$$

Henry
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