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For $n \in \mathbb{N}$ we define the functional $\phi_n$ on $l^{\infty}$ by $\phi_n(x) = \frac{1}{n} \sum_{j=1}^{n} x_j$ where $x$ denotes the sequence $\{x_j \}^{\infty}_{j=1}.$

It is clear that $\phi_n$ is linear. Using the triangular inequality, and the definition of $\infty-$norm, I was also able to prove that $\phi_n$ is in fact in ($l^{ \infty}$).*

Now, I am stuck with the remaining part of the problem. The problem also says that the sequence $\{\phi_n\}^{\infty}_{n=1}$ has a weak* cluster point $\phi$ in ($l^{ \infty}$)*, and $\phi$ does not arise from an element of $l^1.$

This is an exercise (#19 section 6.2) from Folland's Real Analysis book. Any help/suggestions would be highly appreciated. Thank you so much. Stay safe.

Edit: Suppose $f: l^1 \rightarrow (l^{\infty})^*$ is given by $(f(y))(x) = \sum_{j=1}^{n} x_{j}y_{j}$ where $y$ denotes the sequence $\{y_j\}^{\infty}_{j=1}$ in $l^1.$ I want to prove that the functional $\phi$ is not in the image of $f$ i.e. $\phi \notin f(l^1).$ This what I mean by saying $\phi$ does not arise from an element of $l^1.$

Matha Mota
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    What exactly do you mean by "$\phi$ does not arise from an element of $\ell^1$"? – G. Chiusole Apr 22 '20 at 11:24
  • Could you take a look again? I edited the statement. I am sorry for vaguely defining the problem statement. Thank you for pointing out the issue. – Matha Mota Apr 22 '20 at 11:41

2 Answers2

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Recall that in order to show that there is a weak$^*$ cluster point $\phi$ of the sequence, there has to be some subsequence weak$^*$ converging to $\phi$ i.e.

$$\forall x \in \ell^{\infty}: \phi_n(x) \rightarrow \phi(x)$$

In our case here, even the entire sequence converges:

Define $\phi(x) := \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{1}{n} \sum^n_{i = 0} x_i$, then we have clearly the above requirement is fulfilled. It is left to show that $\phi \in \ell^{\infty}$. For this, let $x \in \ell^{\infty}$ be arbitrary. Then we have

$$ \vert \phi(x) \vert = \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{1}{n} \vert \sum^n_{i = 0} x_i \vert \leq \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{1}{n} n \Vert x \Vert_{\infty} \leq \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \Vert x \Vert_{\infty} = \Vert x \Vert_{\infty}$$

Hence $\phi$ has operator norm of less than $1$ and is thus continuous.

Finally, we show that $\phi$ does not arise from an element of $\ell^1$, we want to show that there does not exist an element $y \in \ell^1$ s.t. $\forall x \in \ell^{\infty}: \phi(x) = \sum_{i = 0}^{\infty} x_i y_i$.

For the sake of contradiction assume there was an element $y \in \ell^1$ as described above, then for $\delta^m_i$ which is defined by having a $1$ in the $m$-th place and $0$ otherwise, then every $m \in \mathbb{N}$ we have

$$\phi(\delta^m_i) = \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{1}{n} = 0$$

and also for the supposed $y \in \ell^1$:

$$\sum_{i = 0}^{\infty} x_i y_i = y_m$$

which has to equal $0$ by assumption. Hence $y = 0$, and hence $\phi = 0$ which is a contradiction (which can be seen for example via the constant $1$-sequence).

Edit: The above is false. The limit $\phi(x) = \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{1}{n} \sum_{i = 0}^n x_i$ exists when $(x_i)_{i = 0}^{\infty}$ is convergent. Otherwise this cannot be guaranteed, as shown here.

The right answer is the following:

Note that for every $n \in \mathbb{N}$ the operator norm of $\phi_n$ is less than $1$. Hence $(\phi_n)_{n = 0}^{\infty} \subseteq B_1(0)$ which is compact by Banach-Alaoglu. Hence it has a convergent subsequence $(\phi_{n_k})_{k = 0}^{\infty}$ i.e. the sequence has a cluster point.

Note here that Banach-Alaoglu uses Tychonoff's Theorem of compactness, which in turn uses the axiom of choice. Hence we don't have an idea of what this cluster point looks like.

Now it is left to show that this cluster point is not induced by some $(y_i)_{i = 0}^{\infty} \in \ell^1$. To see this, assume there exists an $(y_i)_{i = 0}^{\infty} \in \ell^1$ s.t. $(\phi_{n_k})_{k = 0}^{\infty}$ converges weakly$^*$ to $(y_i)_{i = 0}^{\infty}$. Then we have that for every $(x_i)_{i = 0}^{\infty} \in \ell^{\infty}$ we have

$$ \vert \frac{1}{n_k} \sum_{i = 0}^{n_k} x_i - \sum_{i = 0}^{\infty} x_i y_i \vert \rightarrow 0$$

Then consider for every $j \in \mathbb{N}$ the sequence $\delta^{j}$ defined by $\delta^j_i = 1$ if $i = j$ and $\delta^j_i = 0$ otherwise for $i \in \mathbb{N}$. Then for $\delta^j \in \ell^{\infty}$ the above conditions gives

$$ \vert \frac{1}{n_k} - y_j \vert \rightarrow 0, ~~ n_k \rightarrow $$

when $n_k \geq j$. This implies that $y_j = 0$ and thus $y = 0$ which is a contradiction (as can be seen for example via the constant $1$-sequence).

My apologies for the incorrect answer before.

G. Chiusole
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  • Thank you so much. The choice of $\phi$ is really natural. I wish I could do this. Thank you for your brilliant solution. Please stay safe. – Matha Mota Apr 22 '20 at 12:02
  • There is not a convergent subsequence converging to $y$. This would be true if the unit ball were metrizable, but it is not as $\ell^\infty$ is not separable. But your idea is still essentially correct and can be salvaged. I have writen how it can be done. Thank you for the inspiration. (+1) – Kadmos Feb 13 '24 at 14:12
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It is straightforward to show $\phi_n\in B_{X^*}$ which is weak* compact by Banach Alouglu. Any compact set with an infinite subset is such that the infinite subset has a cluster point [see Thm 28.1 in Munkre's topology].

Suppose the cluster point is $y\in l_1$. This is an open set in the weak star topology: $$V_1=\{x^* \: | \:\: |x^*(e_j)-y(e_j)|<1\}$$

Take $\phi_{n_1}\in V_1\setminus\{y\}$ (this is possible because we have a cluster boint). Because the weak star is Hausdorff, we may take $y\in \hat{V}_2$ without $\phi_{j}$ for all $j\in \{1,...,n_1\}$. We define:

$$V_2=\{x^* \: | \:\: |x^*(e_j)-y(e_j)|<1/2\}\cap \hat{V}_2$$

We take $\phi_{n_2}\in V_2\setminus\{y\}$. Because the weak star is Hausdorff, we may take $y\in \hat{V}_3$ without $\phi_{j}$ for all $j\in \{1,...,n_2\}$. Define:

$$V_3=\{x^* \: | \:\: |x^*(e_j)-y(e_j)|<1/3\}\cap \hat{V}_3$$

If we proceed inductively, it is clear we have built a sequence such that for every $k\in \mathbb{N}$:

$$\left|\frac{1}{n_k}-y_j\right|<\frac{1}{k}$$

Taking the limit in $k$ (notice the $n_k$ are incresaing natural numbers by construction) yields $y=0$. However, it is also clear there is $\phi_{n}\in \{x^* \:\:|\:\:|x^*(1,1,1...)-y(1,1,1,...)|<1/2\}$. Hence:

$$|\phi_n(1,1,1,...)-y(1,1,1,...)|=\left|1-0\right|<\frac{1}{2}$$

Which is a contradiction.

Kadmos
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    A somewhat simpler way to find $y = 0$ is to notice that whenever $x$ is such that $\phi_n(x)$ converges, any subnet $\phi_{h(\bullet)}(x)$ will converge to the same value. So if $h : I \to \mathbb{N}$ is a subnet such that $\phi_{h(\bullet)} \to y$ in the weak* topology, then $y(e_k) = \lim_i \phi_{h(i)}(e_k) = \lim_{n \in \mathbb{N}}\phi_n(e_k) = 0$. –  Feb 26 '24 at 19:32
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    @lvr, thank you for taking the time to read my answer. Your approach is much nicer indeed and it boils down to the fact that projections are continuous and that there is a subnet that converges to $y$. I built this subnet, but you are right in saying there was no need to do this. :) – Kadmos Mar 01 '24 at 23:13