Suppose we have $\left[1-\frac{1}{x},1+\frac{1}{x}\right]$. As $x\to\infty$, the length of the interval approaches $[1,1]$; however, it seems this is the same as the singleton $\{1\}$ and the interval is always uncountable as $x$ approaches infinity.
Does the cantor set contain countably infinite intervals of zero length? Yet the Cantor set is uncountable so I reason the intervals of zero length are uncountable. This includes my example.
Is my interval countable or uncountable? Explain why?