Because of distributive properties we know this is true, but I am stuck on showing the proof. I know: Let $x\in A\times (B-C)$. This means $x\in\mathbb{A}$ and $x\in B$ but $x\ not in C$. Assume $x\in A$ then from here im not sure where to go.
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3I think you are confusing the [notation for the] cartesian product of sets, with the intersection of sets. – The Chaz 2.0 Apr 23 '20 at 13:40
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You do not know this because of the "distributive property" because the distributive property is what you are being asked to prove.
Hint. $$x \in A \times (B-C)$$ means $x$ is an ordered pair $(y,z)$ where $y \in A$ and $z \in B-C$.
Ethan Bolker
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