Let $I$ be an index set and $(\Omega_i, \mathcal{A}_i)$ measurable spaces for every $i \in I$. Then the product $\sigma-$algebra is defined by $$\bigotimes_{i \in I} \mathcal{A}_i := \sigma(E)$$ with $$ E:= \{pr_i^{-1}(A_i) : i \in I,\ A_i \in \mathcal{A}_i\}$$
So far I've only seen the product $\sigma$-algebra defined for $|I| = 2$: $$ \mathcal{A}_1 \otimes \mathcal{A}_2 := \sigma(A_1 \times A_2 : A_1 \in \mathcal{A}_1, A_2 \in \mathcal{A}_2) $$
I see how these two definition coincide, since $(A_1 \times \Omega_2) \cap (\Omega_1 \times A_2) = A_1 \times A_2$. Similarly you can define the product $\sigma$-algebra for countabe $I$ as
$$ \bigotimes_{i \in I} \mathcal{A}_i = \sigma\left(\left\{\prod_{i \in I} A_i : A_i \in \mathcal{A}_i \right\}\right) $$
since $$\prod_{i \in I} A_i = \bigcap_{i \in I} \Big(A_i \times \prod_{j \in I\setminus\{i\}} \Omega_j \Big) \in \sigma(E)$$ as a countable intersection. (those cartesian products above are supposed to be in the order given by $I$)
My question is: Does this also work for uncountable $I$?
We can't directly argue $\bigcap_{i \in I} \Big(A_i \times \prod_{j \in I\setminus\{i\}} \Omega_j \Big) \in \sigma(E)$ since this intersection is not countable, so I would think they are indeed different but i can't find a counterexample.
EDIT:
Maybe one could use a cardinality argument? Something like: For a set $\prod_{i \in I} A_i \in \sigma(E)$ there are either only countably many $A_i = \Omega_i$ or countably many $A_i \neq \Omega_i$. But the other $\sigma$-algebra would also allow mixed cases where there are both uncountably many $A_i \neq \Omega_i$ and uncountably many $A_i = \Omega_i$. This isn‘t really written formally down though.