Riemann Hypothesis

Question

Riemann Hypothesis is equivalent to the integral equation $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{\log \mid \zeta (1/2+it)\mid }{1+4t^2} \ dt$ =0 What does this mean? Does it mean that Riemann Hypothesis is true if and only if $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{\log \mid \zeta (1/2+it)\mid }{1+4t^2} \ dt$ =0

Answer 1

As Anginga Seng commented, to be equivalent means to be logically equivalent, i.e. one is true if and only if the other is true.