This holds for if $x$ is natural nunbers greater than $1$ so i think it would work for every real nunber $x$ greater than $1$.
-
Here's a MathJax tutorial :) – Shaun May 05 '20 at 19:10
-
The Binomial Theorem (valid for real exponents) might help – Dr. Mathva May 05 '20 at 19:12
-
It does. You can extend it to rationals with a bit of manipulation. And the reals will follow by continuity. – fleablood May 05 '20 at 19:16
-
Try to show $p^x+q^x<1$ for positive $p$ and $q$ such that $p+q=1$. For that, observe the monotonicity of $p^x$ as a function of $x$. – Hans May 05 '20 at 19:25
-
You don't even need the binomial theorem for rationals, you can do it with far less. No need for complicated solutions we can do it with high school math. If $n = \left\lfloor x \right\rfloor $ you can just divide both sides by $(a+b)^{n-x}$ and then directly apply the good ol' fashioned combinatorial binomial theorem. See my answer below. https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3660511/is-it-true-that-abxaxbx-for-three-numbers-a-b-x1/3661097#3661097 – Pedro Juan Soto May 06 '20 at 06:17
-
1Does this answer your question? Can we say that $\left(a+b\right)^{\alpha}>a^{\alpha}+b^{\alpha}$ for all $a,b>0$ and $\alpha>1$? – Martin R May 06 '20 at 06:58
-
Another one: https://math.stackexchange.com/q/3087519. – Martin R May 06 '20 at 07:05
3 Answers
Yes you are right. It's true for any reals $x>1$ and non-negatives $a$ and $b$.
Indeed, let $f(t)=t^x$, where $t\geq0$.
Thus, $f$ is a convex function.
We can assume that $a\geq b$.
Thus, since $$(a+b,0)\succ(a,b),$$ by Karamata we obtain: $$f(a+b)+f(0)\geq f(a)+f(b)$$ or $$(a+b)^x\geq a^x+b^x.$$
- 194,933
-
-
@Ahmad on $[0,+\infty)$ $t^3$ is a convex function. See please better my post. OK. I added this. Thank you! – Michael Rozenberg May 06 '20 at 02:36
-
-
The question is a duplicate, and you answered it before: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/3087526. – Martin R May 06 '20 at 07:06
I am turning my previous comment into an answer.
Dividing both sides by $(a+b)^x$, the original inequality is equivalent to $$p^x+q^x<1,\quad \forall p>0, q>0 \ni p+q=1, x>1.$$
We now demonstrate the last statement.
$u^x$ decreases with respect to $x$ for $u\in(0,1)$. So $$p^x+q^x<p^1+q^1=1, \,\forall x>1;$$ and $$p^x+q^x<p^1+q^1=1,\,\forall x<1.$$
- 9,804
Here is a simple proof using the binomial theorem:
Let $n = \left\lfloor x \right\rfloor$, then we have that \begin{equation} (a+b)^x = (a+b)^{x-n }\sum_{k =0}^n \binom{n}{k } a^{n-k}b^{k}, \end{equation} and therefore it is enough to prove that \begin{equation} \sum_{k =0}^n \binom{n}{k } a^{n-k}b^{k} > \frac{a^x}{(a+b)^{x -n}} + \frac{b^x}{(a+b)^{x-n}}, \end{equation} If $x- n = 0$ then we are done. The proof is as trivial as noticing that $a^x$ and $b^x$ are two terms on the left. Therefore assume $x- n \neq 0$.
Towards that end notice that since $a,b>0$ we have that \begin{equation} \frac{a^{x-n}}{(a+b)^{x-n}} < 1 \end{equation} and likewise \begin{equation} \frac{b^{x -n}}{(a+b)^{x-n}} < 1 \end{equation} since $y^\alpha$ is a strictly increasing function of $y$. Therefore we have that \begin{equation} \frac{a^{x}}{(a+b)^{x-n}} + \frac{b^{x}}{(a+b)^{x-n}} < a^n + b^n \end{equation} which implies \begin{equation} \sum_{k =0}^n \binom{n}{k } a^{n-k}b^{k} \geq a^n +b^n >\frac{a^{x}}{(a+b)^{x-n}} + \frac{b^{x}}{(a+b)^{x-n}} , \end{equation} as was needed.
- 885