I thought that it might be instructive to present a way forward without appealing to Riemann sums or integral bounds. To that end we proceed.
First we evaluate the telescoping series
$$\sum_{j=1}^n \left(j^{3/2}-(j-1)^{3/2}\right)=n^{3/2}\tag1$$
Next, we expand the general term of the sum in $(1)$ as
$$\begin{align}
j^{3/2}-(j-1)^{3/2}&=j^{3/2}\left(1-\left(1-\frac1j\right)^{3/2}\right)\\\\
&=\frac{3\sqrt j}{2}+O\left(\frac1{\sqrt j}\right)\tag2
\end{align}$$
Then using $(2)$, it is easy to see that
$$\begin{align}\frac23\sum_{j=1}^n \frac{\left(j^{3/2}-(j-1)^{3/2}\right)}{n^{3/2}}=\sum_{j=1}^n \frac{\sqrt j}{n^{3/2}}+O\left(\frac1n\right)\end{align}\tag3$$
Finally, using $(1)$ in $(3)$ reveals
$$\sum_{j=1}^n \frac1n \sqrt{\frac jn}=\frac23+O\left(\frac1n\right)\tag4$$
whereupon taking the limit as $n\to\infty$ yields the coveted result
$$\lim_{n\to\infty}\sum_{j=1}^n \frac1n \sqrt{\frac jn}=\frac23$$
as was to be shown!
TOOLS USED: Telescoping Series, Taylor's Theorem
Since they're both pertaining to the limit of sums as we approach infinity, and some of the other questions in this part of the problem set seemed to be about the Riemann integral as well.
– Emil Lenler May 06 '20 at 14:21