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Given a real number $a$ show that there exists a polynomial $Q(x) \in \mathbb{R}[x]$ such that for any polynomial $P(x) \in \mathbb{R}[x]$ with $\deg P\leq n$ we have the identity $$P(a) = \int_{-1}^1 P(x)Q(x) dx.$$

I know that $\int_{-1}^1 P(x)Q(x) dx$ will be a polynomial with odd degree terms but that's about it.

Jyrki Lahtonen
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Dang Dang
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1 Answers1

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Let $\mathcal{P}_n$ denote the space of polynomials of degree up to $n$. Then $$(P,Q):=\int_{-1}^1 P(x)Q(x)\,dx$$ defines an inner product on $\mathcal{P}_n$, and $l(P):=P(a)$ is a linear functional on it.

By the Riesz representation theorem, there exists $Q_a\in\mathcal{P}_n$ such that $l(P)=(P,Q_a)$. The theorem is more commonly used for Hilbert spaces in functional analysis, and there one needs the functional to be continuous. But for finite dimensional inner product spaces all linear functionals are continuous and one can construct the requisite $Q_a$ explicitly by using an orthonormal basis $E_i$. Namely $$Q_a(x):=\sum_i l(E_i)E_i(x)=\sum_i E_i(a)E_i(x).$$ Indeed, taking the inner product with $E_j$ on both sides gives us $(E_j,Q_a)=E_j(a)$ for all $j\leq n$, and then it follows for all $P$ of degree up to $n$ by linearity.

Of course, the real work is swept under the rug in orthonormalizing the powers $x^i$ into polynomials $E_i(x)$ orthonormal in the above inner product. Fortunately, in this case $E_i(x)$ are just the normalized Legendre polynomials, which are known explicitly.

Conifold
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  • Can you explain more on why $E_i(x)$ are Legendre polynomials? – Dang Dang May 11 '20 at 06:38
  • @DangDang Because Legendre polynomials are defined as the polynomials orthogonal with respect to this very inner product (see the link). If we normalize them we get the orthonormal basis. That we can then find explicit formulas for them is a happy surprise which has to do with them also solving a special second order differential equation. – Conifold May 11 '20 at 06:42
  • Thank you :-) ${}$ – Jyrki Lahtonen May 11 '20 at 06:51