Let me repeat your sentence:
$f,g \geqslant 0$ and $f=O(g)$. Exist or not such $C>0$, that $f(n) \leqslant C \cdot g(n)$ for $\forall n \in \mathbb{N}$?
Answer is no, because big-O does not set restriction on some initial segment of $\mathbb{N}$.
Let's define
$ f(n) =
\left\{
\begin{array}{ll}
1 & \mbox{if } n = 1 \\
0 & \mbox{if } n > 1
\end{array}
\right. $
and let's take $g(n) = 0,\ \forall n \in \mathbb{N}$, then $f(n) \leqslant g(n)$ for $n > 1$.
Then, obviously, we have $f=O(g)$, but for any $C>0$ we have $1=f(1)>C \cdot g(1) = 0$.
Of course, if we consider $f>0$ functions, then, this contr example do not work and we can find $C>0$ for any $n$.
But also here we can make proof in less restrictions, then $f>0$. Let's call kernel of function set $ ker (f) = \left\lbrace n: f(n)=0 \right\rbrace = f^{-1}(0) $.
Now consider again $f,g \geqslant 0$ and $f=O(g)$. If $ker( f) = ker (g)$, then we can find $C>0$ such that for any $n$ $f(n) \leqslant C \cdot g(n)$ .