You are mixing some ideas here. If you assume $s_n\le2$ and deduce $s_{n+1}\le2+\frac{1}{\sqrt{n+1}}$, this logic is correct (if you prove it for the induction base $s_1$ - this is called proof by induction). However, you did not prove that $s_{n+1}\ge 2$ - intuitively, you don't know "how much" smaller from $2$ is $s_n$, so adding $\frac{1}{\sqrt{n+1}}$ to it might still make it smaller than $2$, so you did not prove that it is not bounded. As for your question, try looking at the answer given here.
For your second question, try using this inequality (which you should prove rigorously using induction):
$$
\begin{align}
&\frac{1}{1^2}+\frac{1}{2^2}+\frac{1}{3^2}+\frac{1}{4^2} +\frac{1}{5^2} +\frac{1}{6^2} +\frac{1}{7^2} +\frac{1}{8^2} +⋯ \\
&<\frac{1}{1^2}+\frac{1}{2^2}+\frac{1}{2^2}+\frac{1}{4^2} +\frac{1}{4^2} +\frac{1}{4^2} +\frac{1}{4^2} +\frac{1}{8^2}+\dots \\
&=1+2⋅\frac{1}{2^2} +4⋅\frac{1}{4^2}+8⋅\frac{1}{8^2} +⋯ \\
&=1+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{8}+⋯ \\
&=2.
\end{align}$$
[Side note - this is a very interesting sequence. The infinite sum was unknown for more than a century, until Euler proved it is equal to the surprising value of $\frac{\pi^2}{6}$ in 1734. This problem was called Basel problem. Also check the very nice 3Blue1Brown video.]