It's known that the asymptotes of a hyperbola $\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}-\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}=1$ is given by $y=\pm\frac{b}{a}x$ if $a>b$.
I tried to find a proof of the fact that why the equations of these asymptotes are like that,however the only reference (Thomas calculus book) that I found explained that the two asymptotes are derived by letting $\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}-\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}=0$.
It would be highly appreciated if someone prove why the equation of the asymptotes have such form.
Grigori Perelman.
– May 30 '20 at 19:34