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The solution to this in my book says $\frac{1}{5}$. But greater values can be achieved by using $f(x)$ values approaching zero, right ?

curlycharcoal
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3 Answers3

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Here's a graph of $1/f(x)$:

enter image description here

Interpret.

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Your book confused a maximal value and a maximum, what he intended you to find is where(and at what value) $$(\frac{1}{f(x)})’=0$$ $$-\frac{2x-6}{x^2-6x+4}=0$$ $$x=3$$ $$\frac{1}{3^2-6*3+4}=-\frac{1}{5}$$

razivo
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Make use of $|f(x)|\leq M$ then $|\frac{1}{f(x)}|\geq \frac{1}{M}$

Ravindra
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