My first thought is that it is, because $\Theta$ is a tight bound, so assuming a let's say $f(x) = x +2$ and $g(x) = x$, $f(x^2)$ should be bound by $\Theta(g(x^2))$. Same for the logarithm as well.
However, I do need clarification about this for the cases where the limits of $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ tends to infinity and not.