I need help writing a proof for a question from Velleman's "How to Prove It". The question is as follows:
Prove that for all real numbers x and y there is a real number z such that x + z = y - z
My attempt began by translating the goal into a $P \rightarrow Q $ statement.
$$\tag1 \forall x\forall y((x \land y) \in \Bbb R \rightarrow\exists z(x+z=y-z))$$
Assume x and y are some arbitrary real numbers.
Let$$\tag3 y-x = m$$
Then$$\tag4 \frac{y-x}{2}=\frac{m}2=z$$
Thus$$\tag5 2z= y-x =z+x = y-z$$
Because x and y were arbitrary real numbers $\tag1 \forall x\forall y((x \land y) \in \Bbb R \rightarrow\exists z(x+z=y-z))$Am I missing something or is this proof complete?