affine independence

Question

Can I, somewhat informally, state that d+1 points in $\mathbb{R}^d$ are affinely independent, if they don't lie in a $\mathbb{R}^{d-1}$ subspace?

score 2 · Accepted Answer · answered May 05 '11 at 01:38

2

Affine subspace, yes. (That's a translation of an ordinary vector subspace.)

answered May 05 '11 at 01:38

lhf

ah true, because it doesnt need to contain the origin, right? – stefan May 05 '11 at 01:45
@stefan, yes, exactly. – lhf May 05 '11 at 01:48

1 Answers1