This is a question about a proof I saw in a script about stochastic processes. First I state a theorem which is needed in the proof. After that there are two questions, which are highlighted. Between the questions I provide my thoughts / work so far.
$\mathbf{Theorem}$ For any sequence $(X_n)$ of positive r.v. there exists a sequence $(\tilde{X}_n)$ with $\tilde{X}_n\in\operatorname{conv}(X_k;k\ge n)$ (the convex hull) such that $\tilde{X}_n\to X$ $P$-a.s. The r.v. variable $X$ can take values in $[0,\infty].$
This theorem is also known als Komlos theorem. The convex hull is the set $\operatorname{conv}(X_k;{k\ge n})=\{\sum_{k=n}^\infty \lambda_k X_k| \sum_{k=n}^\infty \lambda_k=1,\forall k\ge n:\lambda_k\ge 0,\lambda_k\not=0 \mbox{ for finitely many } \}$ and does not depend on $\omega$, i.e. it is deterministic.
Suppose I have a sequence of r.v. $g_n$ all positive which converge in probability to $g$. Furthermore, I know that for every $n$ there is a stochastic process $Z^n$, such that $g_n\le Z^n_T$. The stochastic processes $Z^n$ are positive, RCLL and indexed by $t\in[0,T]$.
$\mathbf{Question}$ They claim, using a diagonal argument one can find convex combinations $(\tilde{g}_n)$ and $(\tilde{Z}^n_q)$ for all rationals $q\in[0,T]$ converging $P$-a.s. to $g$ and $Z^\infty_q$ respectively.
Is it meant, that we use the same sequence $\Lambda\subset\mathbb{N}$ for $(\tilde{g}_n)$ and $(\tilde{Z}^n)$? Clearly I can find such a sequence for $(g_n)$ using the theorem above. For $(Z^n)$ I would take a numeration of $\mathbb{Q}$, i.e. $q_1,q_2,\dots$ Then looking at $(Z^n_{q_1})$, we can find a $(\tilde{Z}^n_{q_1})$, where $n\in\Lambda_1$, such that $\tilde{Z}^n_{q_1}\to Z^\infty_{q_1}$. For $q_2$ I take a subsequence $\Lambda_2\subset\Lambda_1$ such that $\tilde{Z}^n_{q_2}\to Z^\infty_{q_2}$ and so on. Therefore a general $\tilde{Z}^n_{q_j} \in \operatorname{conv}(Z^k_{q_j};k\ge n)$, for $n\in \Lambda_j$, right?
If it is meant that we use the same sequence $\Lambda$ for both $(\tilde{g}_n)$ and $(\tilde{Z}^n)$, then I would just start with $(g_n)$ and the go to $(Z^n_{q_1})$ etc.
$\mathbf{Question}$ They state, we have $g_n\le Z^n_T$ and we use same convex combinations for $(\tilde{g}_n)$ and all $\tilde{Z}^n_q$, so $g\le Z^\infty_T$.
Why we are using the same convex combinations? If so, then then we can conclude:
$$\tilde{g}_n=\sum_{k=n}^\infty\lambda_kg_k\le\sum_{k=n}^\infty\lambda_kZ_T^k=\tilde{Z}^n_T$$ hence $g\le Z^\infty_T$. But what guarantees that we can use the same convex combinations, i.e. the same $\lambda_k$'s? I'm very thankful for your help!