You need neither boundedness nor convexity for the claims to hold!
- Step 1: Convexity. Let $x,y \in \mathbb R^n$ and $t \in [0, 1]$. Then
$$
\begin{split}
f(tx+(1-t)y) &:= \sup_{z \in S}(tx+(1-t)y)^Tz\\
&= \sup_{z \in S}tx^Tz+(1-t)y^Tz\\
&\le \sup_{z \in S}tx^Tz + \sup_{z \in S}(1-t)y^Tz\\
&\le t\sup_{z \in S}x^Tz + (1-t)\sup_{z \in S}y^Tz\\
&=: tf(x) + (1-t)f(y)
\end{split}
$$
Thus $f$, is convex (and this doesn't depend on $S$ is convex / bounded or not!).
- Step 2: Subgradients. So, suppose $f(x) = x^Tz$ for some $z \in S$. Lets show that $z$ is a subgradient of $f$ at $x$, i.e that
$$
f(x') \ge f(x) + z^T(x'-x),\;\forall x' \in \mathbb R^n.
$$
Indeed, for any $x' \in \mathbb R^n$, one computes
$$
f(x) + z^T(x'-x) = f(x) + - z^Tx + z^Tx' = 0 + z^Tx' = z^Tx' \le f(x') := \sup_{s \in S}s^Tx'.
$$
Thus $z$ is a subgradient of $f$ at $x$, and once again, this doesn't depend on whether $S$ is convex / bounded or not!