Given an infinite series in the form of: $$a \cdot a^{2\log(x)} \cdot a^{4\log^2(x)} \cdot a^{8\log^3(x)} \dotsb = \frac{1}{a^7} $$ find the solution for all positive and real $a$ other than $1$.
The textbook, from which this problem was taken, says that there are no solutions to this equation. Given that I didn't know that before I attempted to solve it, I managed to scramble a solution which gives $x = 10^{4/7}$ and here's how I did it:
First, let's take the $\log_a$ from both sides and expand by the log multiplication rule. We then obtain: $$ 1+2\log(x)+4\log^2(x)+8\log^3(x)+\dotsb = -7. $$
Let's now call the left hand side $S(x)$, so we have $S(x) = -7$. If we then go back to our last equation and subtract one from both sides and multiply by $\frac{1}{2\log(x)}$ we get: $$ 1+2\log(x)+4\log^2(x)+8\log^3(x)+\dotsb = \frac{-4}{\log(x)}. $$ So we have $S(x)$ again on the left hand side, therefore we can set the two expressions equal to one another. After a quick algebraic rearrangement, we get: $$ \log(x) = \frac{4}{7} \implies x = 10^{\frac{4}{7}} $$
I tend to believe the textbook rather than myself but don't know which of the steps was invalid. The method of substitution by $S(x)$ resembles a technique Euler supposedly used to solve some infinite fraction problems so it perhaps doesn't apply in this case with functions.