I was thinking about how to find the inverse of a composite function.
I referred to several great answers on this site on others' questions and they all pointed out that to take the inverse of a composite function is the same as inversing all the functions that constitute it.
However every question and answer dealt with a certain example to verify this.
However I still couldn't form an intuitive idea in my head about why this could be the case.
It would help if someone explains (Either Diagrammatically or otherwise) the intuition behind this, at least for a 2 function composition $(f\circ g)(x)$.