To prove: $\displaystyle \int_x^\infty \exp \left(-\frac{t^2}{2}\right) \, dt < \frac{1}{x}\exp\left(-\frac{x^2}{2}\right)$, $\quad x>0$
We know
$$\int_x^\infty t^{-2} \exp\left(-\frac{t^2}{2}\right) \, dt \leq \exp\left(-\frac{x^2}{2}\right)\int_x ^\infty t^{-2} \, dt = \frac{1}{x}\exp\left(-\frac{x^2}{2}\right) $$
Does the above observation lead to solution? Please give a hint.