If $(X,\tau) $is compact and $\tau'\subseteq \tau$, then $(X,\tau')$ is compact.
I have already read several posts on the subject, but it is still unclear to me. The usual argument is: "In a coarser space, more sets are compact, essentially because there are fewer open covers to need finite subcovers. That is, if a set is compact in the finer topology then it is compact in the coarser topology." (as found here What does compactness in one topology tell us about compactness in another (coarser or finer) topology?)
But still I am not very convinced, specifically because, if I go to a coarser topology, some open sets are missing with respect to the initial topology, and what if I needed those sets for the extract the fine subcover, what guarantees they aren't needed?