Suppose $A_1,A_2$ are bounded, closed, connected subsets of $\Bbb{R}^n$, such that $\partial A_i$ has empty interior inside $A_i$ (for both $i$). Is it true that if $\partial A_1=\partial A_2$ then $A_1=A_2$?
This question is inspired by this one, in which instead of asking that $\partial A_i$ should have empty interior inside $A_i$, it was just required that $\partial A_i\neq A_i$.
If any of the assumptions above are removed, I can find a counterexample. But this seems more involved to me, if there is a counterexample at all.
In the title I asked this for general $n$, but really I am interested in determining the minimal $n$ for which there is such an example (if there is such $n$). Clearly this is impossible for $n=1$, but I'm not even sure about $n=2$.
EDIT. Let me explain what I mean by the sentence "$\partial A_i$ has empty interior inside $A_i$". Since $A_i$ is closed, we have that $\partial A_i\subseteq A_i$. Now, consider the subspace $A_i$ of $\Bbb{R}^n$ (with the subspace topology). $\partial A_i$ is a subset of this subspace, and one can look at its interior $\mathrm{Int}_{A_i}(\partial A_i)$, as a subset of the space $A_i$. I require that $\mathrm{Int}_{A_i}(\partial A_i)= \varnothing$.
