2

I have recently discovered what the "Fourier series" of a function is. So the Fourier series of $f(x)=x^2$ in $[0,2\pi]$ is $f(x)=\dfrac{4\pi^2}{3}+\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^\infty\left(\frac{4}{n^2}\cos(nx)-\frac{4\pi}{n}\sin(nx)\right).$ I plot $x=0$ and so $0=\dfrac{4\pi^2}{3}+4\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^\infty\dfrac{1}{n^2}\Leftrightarrow \displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^\infty\dfrac{1}{n^2}=-\dfrac{\pi^2}{3}$ which is obviously wrong... Where is my fault (btw the Fourier series of $x^2$ is correct) ?

Jean Marie
  • 81,803
  • No the expansion of the Fourier serie is correct. Actually I do not see why this is suspicious ? Anyway thank you for your answer ! – N.B.U.I.T. Jul 14 '20 at 20:59
  • 3
    Besides : as $0$ is a limit point of the considered interval, you can have a discontinuity in that point and find something as you do which looks contadictory : the rule is that the value obtained is the midvalue between the left limit and the right limit. – Jean Marie Jul 14 '20 at 21:01
  • I did not know that... Thanks ! – N.B.U.I.T. Jul 14 '20 at 21:03
  • Do you mean that if $a$ is the left limit and $b$ the right limit, the value is $\dfrac{a^2+b^2}{2}$ ? – N.B.U.I.T. Jul 14 '20 at 21:15
  • Thats right ! See my answer. – Jean Marie Jul 14 '20 at 21:16

3 Answers3

2

Here is the representation of your series truncated after the 10th terms

enter image description here

For this partial sum, $0$ is a point of continuity located with a value close to the midvalue between the values of $f(x)$ at its endpoin. But, clearly, the final state there (with the infinite series development) will be a discontinuity.

A classical result in the theory of Fourier series is that the convergence of the series in this point of discontinuity is indeed towards the midvalue between $f(0)=0^2$ and $f(2\pi)=(2\pi)^2$, i.e., towards the value :

$$\tilde{f}(0)=2 \pi^2$$

with this value of $\tilde{f}(0)$, one gets :

$$2 \pi^2=\dfrac{4\pi^2}{3}+4\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^\infty\dfrac{1}{n^2}$$

giving :

$$\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^\infty\dfrac{1}{n^2}=\dfrac{\pi^2}{2}-\dfrac{\pi^2}{3}=\dfrac{\pi^2}{6}$$

as awaited.

Jean Marie
  • 81,803
1

The periodization of $f(x)=x^2$ for $0\leq x<2\pi$ is discontinuous at $x=0$. For piecewise differentiable functions (as yours), there is a well known result that states that

$S_nf(x)\rightarrow \frac{f(x-)+f(x+)}{2}$, where $S_n$ is the $n$-th partial sum $S_nf(x)=\sum_{|k|\leq n} c_ne^{-ikx}$, $f(x-)$ is the left limit of $f$ and $f(x+)$ is the right limit of $f$.

In your case

$$\frac{(2\pi)^2+0^2}{2}=\frac{4\pi^2}{3} + 4\sum_{n\geq1}\frac{1}{n^2}$$

Mittens
  • 39,145
0

Read Fourier series.

Your function $f(x)$ is simply not periodic. Your function contains a jump at $x=0,2\pi$.

Edit:

I recommend the questionier and the previous answers to use the nomenclature:

  • $f$ is not periodic: $f(x)=x^2$ where $x \in [0,2 \pi]$
  • $g \neq f$ is a periodic extension: $g(x)=x^2$ with $g(x)=g(x + P)$ where $x\in [0,2 \pi]$ and $P=2\pi$.
  • $h \neq g$ (not necessarily) and $h \neq f$ is the periodic Fourier series of $g$ defined here with $h(x) = \sum_{n=-N}^N c_n \cdot e^{ i \tfrac{2\pi nx}{P}}$ and $x \in [0,2 \pi]$.

Otherwise you are mixing different stuff.

Since $h$ is not the Fourier series of $f$ you can not except a uniform/absolute convergence especially at the point of interest $f(0),h(0)$ or $f(2\pi), h(2\pi)$.

Regards

ConvexHull
  • 504
  • 3
  • 10
  • It is periodical. – Jean Marie Jul 14 '20 at 21:04
  • And if I plot $x=\pi$ I get $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^\infty \dfrac{(-1)^n}{n^2}=\dfrac{-\pi^2}{12}$ which is correct I think... Why does this value give a correct answer and not the other ? – N.B.U.I.T. Jul 14 '20 at 21:10
  • Is it because $\pi\in ]0,2\pi[$ ? – N.B.U.I.T. Jul 14 '20 at 21:11
  • @JeanMarie f(x) is not periodic. Read https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Periodic_function – ConvexHull Jul 14 '20 at 21:37
  • There is a misunderstanding due to the fact that the OP has used $f(x)$ for the inital function and its Fourier series (that should be distinguished for example by a tilde over $f$). I meant of course the second one. See my answer. – Jean Marie Jul 14 '20 at 21:46
  • It is periodic in the sense that one usually considers the function on $[0, 2\pi)$ and then the values are extended on the other intervals by periodicity. – LL 3.14 Jul 14 '20 at 21:49
  • @LL3.14 Did you read the reference about requirements on f(x) to be called periodic? – ConvexHull Jul 14 '20 at 21:51
  • @JeanMarie Yes, that is not well defined! – ConvexHull Jul 14 '20 at 21:52
  • 1
    Of course I know what a periodic function is ... do you know what "extending a function by periodicity mean"? – LL 3.14 Jul 14 '20 at 21:54
  • @LL3.14 Sure! We should just agree, that f(x) is simply not periodic! The Fourier series $\tilde{f}(x)$ however is. That's the main problem here. – ConvexHull Jul 14 '20 at 22:01
  • 1
    No, you are making confusions there. When you take a Fourier series, you take a Fourier series of a function on $\mathbb{R}$ that is For example $2\pi$ periodic. In particular, it is sufficient to define it on $[0,2\pi)$ since it defines the function in a unique way. The complete function defined on $\mathbb{R}$ is $$f(x) = (x\ \mathrm{mod} \ 2\pi)^2.$$ Is it more clear now? The OP seems to be aware of that as he defines the function only on the small interval (but perhap am I too optimistic about that '^^) – LL 3.14 Jul 14 '20 at 22:07
  • @LL3.14 I am making no confusions here. We should stop our conversation at this point. – ConvexHull Jul 14 '20 at 22:17