Let $f,g:[0,1] \rightarrow R$ be bounded, nonnegative, and nondecreasing $f(x_1) \leq f(x_2)$ for all $x_1 \leq x_2$ functions. Let $h:[0,1] \times [0,1] \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ be the function $h(x,y)=f(x)g(y)$. Show h is integrable.
Theorem: Let Q be a rectangle, and let $f: Q \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ be a bounded function. Then $\underline{\int_Q} f \leq \overline{\int_Q}f$; equality holds if and only if given $\epsilon>0$, $\exists$ a corresponding partition P of Q for which $U(f,P)-L(f,P)<\epsilon$.
Lemma: Let $Q$ be a rectangle; ;et $f: Q \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ be a bounded function. If P and P' are any two partitions of Q, then $L(f,P) \leq U(f,P')$.
Corollary: If $f,g: Q \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ are bounded functions on a rectangle Q such that $\{x \in Q: f(x) \neq g(x) \}$is a finite set then f is integrable if and only if g is integrable. In this case $\int_Q f=\int_Q g$.
I don't have clue so far for this question, so I am trying to list some potentially useful theorem/lemma/corollary and wonder if someone can help out. Appreciate it.