Let $M$ be a smooth manifold, $X$ be a vector field on $M$ and $f\in C^{\infty}(M)$ be a smooth function on $M$. As obvious as it may sound, by $f\in C^{\infty}(M)$, I'm interpreting this as a map $M\to\mathbb{R}$ that sends any point $p\in M$ to only one unique real number $f(p)$ (because it's a map).
In this lecture, it's mentioned that $X$ is a map $C^{\infty}(M)\to C^{\infty}(M)$, which is the source of my confusion. This means that $Xf\in C^{\infty}(M)$, which in turn means it's a map that assigns each point $p\in M$ to a unique real number $(Xf)(p)$.
As an example, if I take $X=\partial_i$, then given a point $p$, $(\partial_if)(p)$ is the directional derivative of $f$ at $p$ in the direction of the $i$-th coordinate curve, which in turn depends on the chart we're choosing at $p$. The value of $(\partial_if)(p)$ is chart-dependent; the $(\partial_if)$ map fails to assign a unique real value to the point $p$.
So what's going on here? How do I reconcile this contradiction?
Edit: Also, the components of a vector field $V^i$ have a similar behavior. $V^i(p)$ is chart-dependent so it's not exactly a $C^{\infty}(M)$ map either. What kind of objects are $V^i$'s and $\partial_if$'s exactly?