Show that given a double series $a_{m,n}=\frac{m-n}{2^{m+n}}\frac{(m+n-1)!}{m!n!}$, where $a_{0,0}$ is defined to be zero, its sum by rows $\sum_{m=0}^{\infty}\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}a_{m,n}$ is -1, its sum by columns $\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\sum_{m=0}^{\infty}a_{m,n}$ is 1.
My thoughts are as follows:
Let $S_{M,N}=\sum_{m=0, n=0}^{M, N}a_{m,n}$, then it's obvious that $a_{m,n}=-a_{n,m}$, $S_{M,N}=-S_{N,M}$, and $\sum_{m=0}^{\infty}\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}a_{m,n} =- \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\sum_{m=0}^{\infty}a_{m,n}$.
I guessed $S_{M,N}=\frac{M-N}{M+N}$, it seems to be supported by the observation that $a_{m,n}=\frac{1}{2^{m+n}}\frac{m-n}{m+n}\frac{(m+n)!}{m!n!}$, (where ${n+m\choose m}$ and $2^{m+n}$ might cancel out in summation), but if so, $a_{m,n}$ should be $(\frac{1}{m+n}+\frac{2}{m+n-1}+\frac{1}{m+n-2})(m-n)$, which contradicts the above definition of $a_{m,n}$.
With k=m+n, l=m-n (l=-k,-k+2,..., k), we can further write the series as $$a_{m,n}=a'_{k,l}=\frac{1}{2^{k}}\frac{l}{k}{k\choose\frac{k+l}{2}},$$ the part without l/k is exactly the expansion of $(1+1)^k/2^k$ for each k.
- Then I tried to use induction as well as recursion relations $a_{m+1,n}=\frac{(m+1-n) (m+n) }{(m-n) (m+1) (2) }a_{m,n}$ and $a_{m,n+1}=\frac{(m-n-1) (m+n)}{(m-n) (n+1) (2) }a_{m,n}$ to get sum $R_n$ of items in (n+1)th row.
$R_0=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}a_{0,n}=a_{0,0}+\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}-2^{-n}=-1,$
$R_1=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}a_{1,n}=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{n-1}{2} a_{0,n}=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{n-1}{2} (-2^{-n})=0,$ using relation between $a_{m,n}$ and $a_{m+1,n}$.
I tried to simplify $R_2$ to make it a funcion of $a_{1,n}$ or $a_{0,n}$ and $n$, using relationship between $a_{m,n}$ and $a_{m+1,n}$ as well as that between $a_{m,n}$ and $a_{m,n+1}$, but the result I get can't yet make $R_2$ a function of $R_1$ or $R_0$. I guess it should be 0 but I haven't proved that yet.