I thought of a way to prove conjectures in continuous settings, assuming they are true at the two ends points, To demonstrate it, I will show how it works with the power rule from diffrential calculus.$$$$ Just a basic recap, the power rule says that if $ r\in \mathbb{R}$, then $\frac{d(x ^ r)}{dx} = r x^{r-1}$. The algorithm goes like this, suppose that we somehow proved that the power rule work for two powers $a$ and $b$ (i.e $\frac{d(x ^ a)}{dx} = a x^{a-1}$ and $\frac{d(x ^ b)}{dx} = b x^{b-1}$), now we prove that this implies that the power rule works when the power equals $\frac{a + b}{2}$ (i.e that $\frac{d(x ^ \frac{a + b}{2})}{dx} = \frac{a + b}{2} x^{\frac{a + b}{2}-1}$).$$$$ This algorithm isn't meant to just prove the conjecture on the point on the middle of the interval, it's suppose to prove it on the entire inteval. If the power rule works for two powers, $c$ and $d$, and we proved the statement above, then the power rule works for every power $r$ such that $c < r < d$. Here's why:$$$$ through our proof, we know that the power rule works when the power equals $ \frac{c + d}{2}$ . So know we know that the power rule works when the power equals $c$ and $\frac{c + d}{2}$, this implies that it also work when the power equals $\frac{\frac{c + d}{2} + c}{2}$, and because it also works when the power equals $d$, it should also work when the power equals $\frac{\frac{c + d}{2} + d}{2}$.$$$$ According to my understanding, if I repeat the same argument, then it should prove that the power rule works for every power $r$ such that $c < r < d$. So I have three questions about this algorithm:
- Is it a valid way to prove that if the power rule works for any two powers $c$ and $d$, then it also works for any power $r$ such that $c < r < d?$ And if not, why$?$
- Could it be used to do proofs on continuous intervals for conjectures beyond the power rule$?$
- Assuming the answer to question $2$ is yes, could this algorithm be generalized, by replacing the denominator with any real number $r$ greater than $1$, and multiplying $a$ by $r - 1?$ I.e, in the example of the power rule, if we proved that if the power rule works for any two powers $a$ and $b$, then it also works for $ \frac{(r - 1)a + b}{r} $ (where $r \in \mathbb{R}$ and $ r > 1$), and we proved that the power rule works for two powers $c$ and $d$, can we thus conclude that the power works for any power $r$ such that $c < r < d?$ $$$$EDIT: I added an update to this question on my answer (I did it there, and not here, because I felt this question is getting too long).