I thought I had a proof that utilized the dominated convergence theorem, but I realized that I was mistaken in my use of the theorem, and my proof never really used that $f(x)\rightarrow0$ as $x\rightarrow1$.
So all I've really been able to show is that $nx^nf(x)\rightarrow0$ point wise on $[0,1)$. Beyond that I'm stuck.
One thing I've considered is using the fact that $f\in L^1([0,1])$ means that there is some measurable $A\subseteq[0,1]$ such that $m(A)<\epsilon$ and $f$ is bounded on $[0,1]\sim A$ ($\epsilon$ can be arbitrarily small). This would at least give me uniform convergence on $[0,1]\sim A$ and thus prove the claim for $[0,1]\sim A$. But I'm not totally clear on where I would proceed from there, or if it's even the best approach.
Any advice would be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance.
So, my first thought when I saw this problem was to use one of the main convergence theorems (mainly, dominated convergence). The proof you outlined just directly shows that the integral goes to zero. Was there something about this problem that made you think a direct approach would be the best way to go?
– Bears Aug 12 '20 at 18:42