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I want to follow up on my previous question. Based on the comments and responses I got for my previous question, I developed a new proof for Baby Rudin Ch. 6. Ex. 7a. The exercise is:

Suppose $f$ is a real function on $(0, 1]$ and $f \in \mathscr{R}$ on $[c, 1]$ for every $c>0$. Define \begin{equation}\tag{7.0} \int_0^1 f(x) \, dx = \lim_{c \to 0} \int_{c}^1 f(x) \, dx \end{equation} if this limit exists (and is finite). If $f \in \mathscr{R}$ on $[0, 1]$, show that this definition of the integral agrees with the old one.

My latest attempt:

Firstly, we state a modified version of Theorem 6.12 (c) in the text; call it Theorem 6.12 (c$^*$). Theorem 6.12 (c) states that:

If $f \in \mathscr{R}(\alpha)$ on $[a, b]$ and if $a<c<b$, then $f \in \mathscr{R}(\alpha)$ on $[a, c]$ and on $[c, b]$ and \begin{equation*} \int_a^c f \, d\alpha + \int_c^b f \, d\alpha = \int_a^b f \, d\alpha \end{equation*}

Now, if we allow for the possibility of $c=b$ in Theorem 6.12 (c), we obtain Theorem 6.12 (c$^*$). To wit, take $c=b$ in Theorem 6.12 (c). Then,

If $f \in \mathscr{R}(\alpha)$ on $[a, b]$ and if $a<c\le b$, then $f \in \mathscr{R}(\alpha)$ on $[a, c]$ and on $[c, b]$ and \begin{equation*} \int_a^c f \, d\alpha + \int_c^b f \, d\alpha = \int_a^b f \, d\alpha + \int_b^b f \, d\alpha = \int_a^b f \, d\alpha \end{equation*}

In other words, we can safely replace $a<c<b$ with $a<c\le b$ in Th. 6.12. Now, we prove the original question. Suppose $f$ is a real function and is Riemann integrable on $[0, 1]$ in the sense of the definition of Riemann integrals given on Pg. 121 in Rudin. Let $0<c\le1$ and that the limit on the right-hand side of (7.0) exists.

By Theorem 6.12 (c$^*$), $f$ is Riemann integrable on $[c, 1]$. We want to show that \begin{equation} \lim_{c \to 0} \int_{c}^1 f(x) \, dx = \int_0^1 f(x) \, dx = \lim_{c \to 0} \int_{0}^1 f(x) \, dx \end{equation}

Let $\epsilon> 0$ be given. It suffices to that there exists a $\delta>0$ such that \begin{equation}\tag{7.1} 0< |c-0| < \delta \implies \left|\int_{c}^1 f(x) \, dx- \int_{0}^1 f(x) \, dx \right| < \epsilon \end{equation} By Theorem 6.12 (c$^*$), we know that $f$ is Riemann integrable on $[0, c]$ and \begin{equation}\tag{7.2} \int_0^c f(x) \, dx = \int_0^1 f(x) \, dx - \int_c^1 f(x) \, dx \end{equation} Since $f$ is Riemann integrable on $[0, c]$, it must also be bounded on $[0, c]$, for if $f$ is not bounded on $[0, c]$, then it cannot be Riemann integrable on $[0, c]$. Put $M = \sup\limits_{0 \, \le x \, \le c} |f(x)|$. Clearly, $M \ge 0$. If $M =0$, then $f(x) = 0 \, \forall x$, which implies
\begin{equation} \int_0^1 f(x) \, dx =0= \int_{c}^1 f(x) \, dx \end{equation} which means that the implication in (7.1) will hold for any $\delta$. So, assume WLOG that $0 < \epsilon\le M$. By Theorem 6.12 (d),we have \begin{equation*} \left| \int_0^c f(x) \, dx\right| \le M(c-0) = Mc \stackrel{(7.2)}{\implies} \left| \int_0^1 f(x) \, dx - \int_c^1 f(x) \, dx\right| \le Mc \end{equation*} Put $\delta = \dfrac{\epsilon}{M}$. Notice that $c\in(0, 1]$ and $\dfrac{\epsilon}{M}\in(0, 1]$. If $c=\dfrac{\epsilon}{M}, Mc=\epsilon$ and
\begin{equation*} \left| \int_0^1 f(x) \, dx - \int_c^1 f(x) \, dx\right| \le Mc = \epsilon \end{equation*} If $c<\dfrac{\epsilon}{M}$, we have \begin{equation*} \left| \int_0^1 f(x) \, dx - \int_c^1 f(x) \, dx\right| \le Mc < M \cdot \frac{\epsilon}{M} = \epsilon \end{equation*} If $c>\dfrac{\epsilon}{M}, \dots$

My question:

Is Theorem 6.12(c$^*$) actually correct? If my proof correct, or is there something in the proof that can be improved? Can someone please suggest how the proof can be completed? Thanks!

Ricky_Nelson
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    As you've written it right now, the definition of $M$ depends on $c$ and the values of $c$ depend on $M$. This is a problem. Better to define $M$ independent of $c$ ... Related, the statement "If M=0, then f(x)=0∀x" is false, but if you define $M$ differently, it may become true... – Brian Moehring Aug 12 '20 at 19:56
  • @BrianMoehring I've tried to edit my proof based on your comment; however, I am having trouble completing it now. I think I will need to redefine $\delta$ to be something of the form $\delta = \min (\frac{\epsilon}{M}, \textrm{some other term})$, but I can't quite figure out what the new definition of $\delta$ should be. I'd be really grateful if you can provide a hint on how the current version of the proof can be completed. – Ricky_Nelson Aug 12 '20 at 23:18
  • I was hinting at setting $$M = \sup_{0 \le x \le 1} |f(x)|$$ From here, we have for any $0<c<1$, $$\left|\int_0^c f(x) , dx \right| \leq Mc \to 0 \quad \text{as } c \to 0^+$$ which is all you needed to show, in light of the 6.12(c) you quoted, and the squeeze/sandwich theorem (just used for convenience) – Brian Moehring Aug 12 '20 at 23:32
  • @BrianMoehring Can $c$ not equal $1$ (you have strict inequality in $c<1$ in your last comment)? – Ricky_Nelson Aug 13 '20 at 00:50
  • It can equal $1$ but since we're taking a limit as $c\to 0^+$, it doesn't matter for the problem. – Brian Moehring Aug 13 '20 at 01:06
  • @BrianMoehring Thanks, the question is resolved! – Ricky_Nelson Aug 13 '20 at 02:22
  • What is $\mathscr R$? – miracle173 Aug 13 '20 at 02:46
  • @miracle173 The set of all functions that are Riemann integrable; this is the same as Rudin's notation. – Ricky_Nelson Aug 13 '20 at 14:35

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