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I am trying to verify that $xyz -xy-xz-zy \geq -\frac {8}{27}$ when $x+y+z=1$ and $x,y,z$ positive, preferably without resolving to calculus.

It seems like a standard result but I couldn't come up with some basic application of AM-GM or Muirhead's inequality

Any input is welcome

Cris
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2 Answers2

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First observe that: $$ (1 - x)(1 - y)(1 - z) = 1 - (x + y + z) + (xy + yz + xz) - xyz = (xy + yz + xz) - xyz $$ Thus, your inequality is equivalent to the following: $$ (1 - x)(1 - y)(1 - z) \leq \frac{8}{27} $$ Indeed this holds, as by AM-GM: $$ (1 - x)(1 - y)(1 - z) \leq \left(\frac{3 - (x + y + z)}{3}\right)^3 = \left(\frac{2}{3}\right)^3 = \frac{8}{27} $$

Clement Yung
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The inequality is equivalent to $$(xy+yz+zx)(x+y+z) \leq xyz + {8\over27}(x+y+z)^3$$

which simplifies to

$$2xyz+\sum{x^2y}\leq{8\over27}(x+y+z)^3={8\over27}\sum{x^3}+{8\over9}\sum{xy^2}+{16\over9}xyz$$

which simplifies to

$$6xyz+3\sum{xy^2}\leq8\sum{x^3}$$

Note that $$6xyz\leq 2\sum{x^3}$$ $$3\sum{xy^2}\;\leq6\sum{x^3}$$

The inequality is therefore proven.

cr001
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  • Thank you! its great to have two views. I accepted the other one as it was slightly easier to follow and you both posted at the same time. – Cris Aug 13 '20 at 05:05
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    Yes I agree the other answer is smarter as well. My answer is based on the "make everything of the same degree and see what happen" approach while the other answer needed some more insight. – cr001 Aug 13 '20 at 10:08