I have come upon the hypergeometric function $$_2F_1\left(k+\frac{1}{2},k+\frac{1}{2};\frac{3}{2},z\right)$$ where $k \geq 1$ is an integer, and I believe that this is equal to $$\frac{p(z)}{(1-z)^{(4k-1)/2}}$$ where $p$ is a polynomial of degree $k-1$ (Wolframalpha confirms the first few values). I understand that this must follow from some relationship involving contiguous hypergeometric functions, but I don't know how, and don't have a good reference (library at my uni is closed for COVID-19). I actually don't care about the coefficients in the polynomial, because I'm just trying to show an integral is finite. Is anyone able to put me on the right track?
Many thanks, Greg