0

This is apparently a "hard" question, and I don't know if I'm missing something, but it seems trivial to me. Aside from 2, all other prime numbers are odd. So the mean of any consecutive prime number is of course even and hence divisible by 2. So the answer is obviously no.

Am I missing something here or is this problem really this simple?

David
  • 702
  • 4
  • 16

1 Answers1

3

No, the mean of two numbers is necessarily between them. If there were a prime between your two primes, they would no longer be consecutive.

Telastyn
  • 131
  • 1
    looks like I botched this problem with my first thought, but nonetheless, it seems this problem is simple based on your approach. – David Aug 21 '20 at 18:01