Let $ g:[a,b]\to\mathbb{R} $ and $ f:[a,b]\to\mathbb{R} $ be continuous functions, such that $ f\left(x\right)\leq g\left(x\right) $ for any $ x\in[a,b] $.
Assume $ \intop_{a}^{\boldsymbol{b}}g\left(x\right)dx=\intop_{a}^{\boldsymbol{b}}f\left(x\right)dx $.
Is it true that $ f=g $?
I think that its true. I'll explain why:
we know that $ g\left(x\right)\geq f\left(x\right) $ and thus $ \intop_{a}^{\boldsymbol{b}}g\left(x\right)dx\geq\intop_{a}^{\boldsymbol{b}}f\left(x\right)dx $ so
$ \intop_{a}^{\boldsymbol{b}}(g\left(x\right)-f\left(x\right))dx\geq0 $
If we will assume by contradiction that $ g\neq f $ then we could find $ x_{0}\in[a,b] $ such that $ g\left(x_{0}\right)-f\left(x_{0}\right)>0 $.
But $ f $ and $ g $ are continuous, and thus $ g-f $ is continuous, and we found $ x_0 $ such that $ (g-f)(x_0 $ is positive, thus the integral $ \intop_{a}^{b}\left(g-f\right) $ should also be positive.
So that's why it seems correct to me, but I wanted to make sure because that's a strong assumption to make.
Thanks in advance.