Look at this function: $f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{ll} \frac{x(1-x^2)}{1-x^3}\\ 2/3 \end{array}\right.$. Here $2/3=\lim_{x\to1}\frac{x(1-x^2)}{1-x^3}$. I can show that the second derivative of $\frac{x(1-x^2)}{1-x^3}$ is non-positive for $0\leq x<1$ and $x>1$; however, $\frac{x(1-x^2)}{1-x^3}$ is undefined at $x=1$. So in this case, how to show $f(x)$ is concave rigorously? (I think a point won't change the concavity of a function, but I don't know how to show it.)
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If $x\neq1$, then $$f(x)=\frac{x(1-x^2)}{1-x^3}=\frac{x(1-x)(1+x)}{(1-x)(1+x+x^2)}=\frac{x(1+x)}{1+x+x^2}.$$ And plugging in $x=1$ into $\dfrac{x(1+x)}{1+x+x^2}$ also yields $2/3$.
This means that the given function is in fact $f(x)=\dfrac{x(1+x)}{1+x+x^2}$ for all real numbers. Now you can the second derivative.
zipirovich
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