The following is a very elementary question but I can't find the error:
Denote $D$ the diagonal $\{[x_0:x_1],[x_0:x_1]\} \subset \mathbb P^1$x $\mathbb P^1$. Let $\phi: \mathbb P^1 \longrightarrow \mathbb P^2$ defined by $\phi([t_0:t_1])=(t_0^2:2t_0 t_1:t_1^2)$ and let P be its image. Similar to the Veronese map, this is an isomorphism and we have $P = \{[u_0: u_1: u_2] | u_0 u_2 = \frac {u_1^2} 4\}.$
Let $i$ be the natural isomorphism $\mathbb P^1 \longrightarrow D \subset\mathbb P^2$.
Let $\psi:\mathbb P^1$ x $\mathbb P^1 \longrightarrow \mathbb P^2$ be defined by $\psi([x_0:x_1],[y_0:y_1])= [x_0 y_0: x_0 y_1 + x_1 y_0 : x_1 y_1]$. One sees that $\psi(D) = P$.
We have $\psi \big |_{D}=\psi \big |_{im(i)}$ is an isomorphism to $P$, because $\phi$ is and $\psi \circ i = \phi$ (and it's easy to write down the inverse morphism explicitely).
But if I calculate it manually I get $\psi^{-1}(P) = V((x_0 y_1 - x_1 y_0)^2) \subset \mathbb P^1$x $\mathbb P^1$, which is 2 times the Diagonal $D$ (which must be true because we have a correspondence between biquadratic curves in $\mathbb P^1$x $\mathbb P^1$ and quadrics in $\mathbb P^2$). But this contradicts $\psi \big |_{D}$ being an isomorphism (and the latter in turn is used by an author to prove s.th., so I somehow hope it is not too far away from the truth / there is a way to fix his argument, but that's a different story).