Consider a commutative unital ring $A$ and its ideal $I$. Let $\hat{A}$ be a completion of $A$ with $I$-adic topology. I want to know whether $\hat{I^n}=\hat{I}^n$ holds or not in general. (Note that $I$-adic topology of $I^n$ concides with its relative topology, even without noetherian hypothesis.)
It is true when $A$ is noetherian, since $\hat{I}=I\hat{A}$ holds. (Atiyah-MacDonald Prop10.15)
My attempt: Write down $\hat{I^n}$ as a subset of $\prod_l A/I^l$. Then $\hat{I}^n\subseteq \hat{I^n}$doesn't seem to be true. So I want to make a counterexample.