I've seen this question, but it doesn't actually give an answer in its answer, merely a text citation. I also know how to set up this problem, but the barrier is getting something to use as a solution.
If I want to find the maximum entropy distribution given the constraints above, I would set up the following function, given $\mu$ is the mean and $\sigma^2$ is the variance:
$$G = -\sum_{i=0}^{\infty}p_i\ln(p_i) + \lambda\left(\sum_{i=0}^{\infty}p_i-1\right)+\kappa\left(\sum_{i=0}^{\infty}i\cdot p_i-\mu\right)+\zeta\left(\sum_{i=0}^{\infty}i^2\cdot p_i-(\sigma^2+\mu^2)\right) $$
When I take the partial derivative with respect to $p_i$, I obtain:
$$p_i = e^{\zeta i^2+\kappa i +\lambda -1}$$
But when I start trying to do math to find the Lagrange multipliers, I end up getting formulae that simply do not produce anything workable. It's not merely that it doesn't seem to give me an analytical solution: it's that it doesn't even want to give me a transcendental one I can approximate numerically with any ease. Does there exist an analytical solution for the Lagrange multipliers? If not, what formulae can I use to give a precise numerical approximation for arbitrary $\mu$ and $\sigma$?