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The problem comes from a problem sheet of an introductory math course by Oxford. It is question 1 in https://courses.maths.ox.ac.uk/node/download_material/45907. I don't study there I'm just curious and want to try.

Given $n$ positive numbers $x_1, x_2,\ldots,x_n$ such that $x_1+x_2+\ldots+x_n\le 1/3$, prove by induction that
$$(1-x_1)(1-x_2)\cdot\ldots\cdot(1-x_n)\ge 2/3.$$

My attempt:
For $n=1$,
$$x_1\le1/3$$ $$-x_1\ge-1/3$$ $$1-x_1\ge1-1/3$$ $$1-x_1\ge2/3$$

(Incorrect)
Assume $(1-x_1)(1-x_2)\cdot\ldots\cdot(1-x_k)\ge2/3$ for some $k$.
For $n=k+1$,
$$ \left\{ \begin{array}{c} x_1+x_2+\ldots+x_k\le1/3\qquad(1)\\ x_1+x_2+\ldots+x_k+x_{k+1}\le1/3\qquad(2) \end{array} \right. $$ $(2)-(1):$ $$x_{k+1}\le0$$ $$-x_{k+1}\ge0$$ $$1-x_{k+1}\ge1$$ Then$$(1-x_1)(1-x_2)\cdot\ldots\cdot(1-x_k)(1-x_{k+1})$$ $$\ge2/3\cdot1$$ $$\ge2/3$$ But it looks like a paradox because $(1)$ and $(2)$ can't be true at the same time. For $n>1$, I cannot make the given inequality into the desired one. They are just not equivalent.

I'm looking for a hint. Sorry but I think they are not grading it now. Thank you.

Edit:
Reply to Kavi Rama Murthy:
When $n=2$, $$x_1+x_2\le1/3$$ $$1-x_1-x_2\ge2/3$$ Then $$(1-x_1)(1-x_2)=1-x_1-x_2+x_1x_2$$ $$\ge(2/3)+x_1x_2$$ $$\ge2/3$$
For $n=k+1$, given that $$x_1+x_2+...+x_k+x_{k+1}\le1/3$$ and apply the $n=k$ case with $x_1,x_2,...,x_k+x_{k+1}$, $$(1-x_1)(1-x_2)\cdot\ldots\cdot(1-x_k-x_{k+1})$$ $$=(1-x_1)(1-x_2)\cdot\ldots\cdot[(1-x_k)(1-x_{k+1})-x_kx_{k+1}]\ge2/3$$ Then $$(1-x_1)(1-x_2)\cdot\ldots\cdot(1-x_k)(1-x_{k+1})\ge2/3+x_kx_{k+1}(1-x_1)(1-x_2)\cdot\ldots\cdot(1-x_k)$$ $$\ge2/3$$
Reply to ΑΘΩ:

(Replaced with the empty $I$ case)
When $I$ has $1$ element, $${\displaystyle \prod_{i\in I}^{1} (1-x_i)}=1-x_i\ge1-{\displaystyle \sum_{i\in I}^{1} x_i}$$

When $I$ has $0$ element, $${\displaystyle \prod_{i\in I}^{0} (1-x_i)}=1$$ Looking at RHS, $$1-{\displaystyle \sum_{i\in I}^{0} x_i}=1$$ Then $${\displaystyle \prod_{i\in I}^{0} (1-x_i)}\ge1-{\displaystyle \sum_{i\in I}^{0} x_i}$$ Assume ${\displaystyle \prod_{i\in I}^{k} (1-x_i)}\ge1-{\displaystyle \sum_{i\in I}^{k} x_i}$.
When $I$ has $k+1$ elements, $${\displaystyle \prod_{i\in I}^{k+1} (1-x_i)}$$ $$=(1-x_{k+1}){\displaystyle \prod_{i\in I}^{k} (1-x_i)}$$ $$\ge(1-x_{k+1})(1-{\displaystyle \sum_{i\in I}^{k} x_i})$$ Looking at RHS, $$1-{\displaystyle \sum_{i\in I}^{k+1} x_i}$$ $$=1-{\displaystyle \sum_{i\in I}^{k} x_i}-x_{k+1}$$ $$=1-x_{k+1}-{\displaystyle \sum_{i\in I}^{k} x_i}$$ $$=(1-x_{k+1})(1-\frac{{\displaystyle \sum_{i\in I}^{k} x_i}}{1-x_{k+1}})$$ Since $1\ge1-x_{k+1}$, $$1-\frac{{\displaystyle \sum_{i\in I}^{k} x_i}}{(1)}\ge1-\frac{{\displaystyle \sum_{i\in I}^{k} x_i}}{(1-x_{k+1})}$$ $$(1-x_{k+1})(1-{\displaystyle \sum_{i\in I}^{k} x_i})\ge(1-x_{k+1})(1-\frac{{\displaystyle \sum_{i\in I}^{k} x_i}}{1-x_{k+1}})$$ $${\displaystyle \prod_{i\in I}^{k+1} (1-x_i)}\ge1-{\displaystyle \sum_{i\in I}^{k+1} x_i}$$ In the problem, given ${\displaystyle \sum_{i\in I}^{k+1} x_i}\le1/3$, $${\displaystyle \prod_{i\in I}^{k+1} (1-x_i)}\ge1-(1/3)$$ Then $$(1-x_1)(1-x_2)\cdot\ldots\cdot(1-x_k)(1-x_{k+1})\ge2/3$$

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    You can't do $2) - 1)$ because the sign of the inequality $1)$ is reversed – Peanut Sep 03 '20 at 11:42
  • @Lo Wai Kiu There is a simpler way without induction. – Michael Rozenberg Sep 03 '20 at 11:55
  • @LoWaiKiu I just noticed that you edited your post with a reply to my answer. Your attempt at a proof does get somethings right but there are also some issues with the rigour. Among these issues, the base case of induction starts at $|I|=0$, when $I$ is empty. – ΑΘΩ Sep 04 '20 at 16:35
  • @ΑΘΩ I corrected the proof with the empty case. Thank you so much for helping me out. – Lo Wai Kiu Sep 05 '20 at 14:51
  • @LoWaiKiu Good to know it was useful! By the way, the very particular notation $\sum_{k=1}^n$ actually means $\sum_{k \in [1, n]}$ - where I am referring to the natural not the real interval - and is therefore a particular case of the general syntax $\sum_{i \in I}$. The notation $\sum_{i \in I}^n$ is undefined and incorrect. What could that $n$ possibly mean in relation to the summation carried out over all the finitely many indices $i$ of index set $I$? – ΑΘΩ Sep 05 '20 at 22:56
  • @LoWaiKiu One more remark: the idea of the proof is alright, however the practice of considering fractions whose denominators are potentially zero is not at all. I will edit my post later on to include a rigorous proof of this elementary inequality. – ΑΘΩ Sep 05 '20 at 23:02
  • @ΑΘΩ Thank you again for correcting me and teaching me rigorous proof. I realise I am far from being able to write formal math. You even gave me a complete answer! – Lo Wai Kiu Sep 06 '20 at 13:26
  • @LoWaiKiu Seeing that you found it instructive means it was entirely worth the effort. I am glad it helped! The skill of properly employing mathematical formalism is gradually acquired in time, you need not worry about that aspect. The fact that you show yourself open to (constructive) criticism and that you are an earnest disciple of mathematics does you full credit and is a sign of virtue. Endeavor to cultivate it and it shall be a good reason for joy! – ΑΘΩ Sep 07 '20 at 04:51

2 Answers2

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I will demonstrate how we can go from $n=2$ to $n=3$ and that should tell you how you can go from any $n$ to $n+1$. The assumption now is $x_1+x_2 \leq \frac1 3, x_1,x_2 >0$ implies $(1-x_1)(1-x_2) \geq \frac 2 3$.

Let $x_1+x_2+x_3 \leq \frac1 3, x_1,x_2,x_3 >0$. Then, applying the case $n=2$ to the number $x_1,x_2+x_3$ we get $(1-x_1)(1-x_2-x_3) \geq \frac 2 3$. This can be written as $$(1-x_1) [(1-x_2)(1-x_3)-x_2x_3] \geq \frac2 3 .$$ This means

$$(1-x_1) (1-x_2)(1-x_3)-x_2x_3(1-x_1)(1-x_2) \geq \frac 2 3 .$$ Just transfer $(1-x_1)(1-x_2)x_2x_3$ to the right side to see that $$(1-x_1)(1-x_2)(1-x_3) \geq \frac 2 3. $$

vonbrand
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May I suggest a more general related inequality which applies to the particular context of your problem in a very straightforward manner and which is easily proved by induction.

Lemma. Let $I$ be an arbitrary finite set (possibly empty) and $x \in [0, 1]^I$ a family of positive subunitary numbers indexed by $I$. It is then the case that: $$\prod_{i \in I}(1-x_i) \geqslant 1-\sum_{i \in I}x_i.$$ Equality is obtained only when at most one term of the family $x$ is nonzero.

As a note on terminology: to me, ''$t$ is positive'' means $t \geqslant 0$ whereas the strict version $t>0$ I express by saying $t$ is strictly positive.

The inequality is easily proved by induction. Specifically, we are going to prove the following statement:

$$(\forall I)(\forall x)\left(\left(|I|=n \wedge x \in [0,1]^I\right) \Rightarrow \prod_{i \in I}(1-x_i) \geqslant 1-\sum_{i \in I}x_i\right)$$

by induction on $n \in \mathbb{N}$. The base case occurs for $n=0$; since the empty set is the only set of cardinality $0$ and empty products (sums) of real numbers are by definition to $1$ ($0$), the inequality in question is trivially verified (and seen moreover to actually be an equality).

Let us now assume the claim is valid for arbitrary $n \in \mathbb{N}$ and let us prove it holds for $n+1$. To this end let $I$ be an arbitrary index set such that $|I|=n+1$ and let $x \in [0, 1]^I$ be an arbitrary family. Since $n+1 \neq 0$, the set $I$ is necessarily nonempty so we can fix a certain $\alpha \in I$. We also introduce the subset $J=I \setminus \{\alpha\}$ and the restricted family $y=x_{|I}=(x_i)_{i \in J}$.

It is clear that $|J|=n$ and that $y \in [0, 1]^J$, which allows us to apply the induction hypothesis to $J$ and $y$, in order to infer that: $$\prod_{i \in J}(1-y_i) \geqslant 1-\sum_{i \in J}y_i.$$

Keeping in mind that by definition $y_i=x_i$ for every $i \in J$ and that $1-x_{\alpha} \geqslant 0$ (since $x_{\alpha} \leqslant 1$), we multiply the above inequality referring to $y$ by $1-x_{\alpha}$ and obtain:

$$\begin{align*} \prod_{i \in I}(1-x_i)&=(1-x_{\alpha})\prod_{i \in J}(1-x_i)\\ &\geqslant (1-x_{\alpha})\left(1-\sum_{i \in J}x_i\right)\\ &=1-x_{\alpha}-\sum_{i \in J}x_i+x_{\alpha}\sum_{i \in J}x_i \tag{*}\\ &\geqslant 1-\left(x_{\alpha}+\sum_{i \in J}x_i\right)\\ &=1-\sum_{i \in I}x_i, \end{align*}$$ which is precisely the desired inequality referring to family $x$. The last inequality in the sequence above is due to the fact that in the product $x_{\alpha}\displaystyle\sum_{i \in J}x_i$ both factors $x_{\alpha}$ and $\displaystyle\sum_{i \in J}x_i$ are positive -- the latter since it is a sum of positive reals -- and therefore the product is itself positive.

The fact that the case of equality can only occur for families whose support (by which I mean the subset of indices to which correspond nonzero terms of the respective family) is at most a singleton is also justified by induction, along the same format. The base case is trivial and assuming the validity of this necessary (actually equivalent) condition for equality in the case of arbitrary families with index sets of cardinality $n \in \mathbb{N}$, let $x \in [0, 1]^I$, $|I|=n+1$, $\alpha \in I$ and the objects $J$, $y$ be as above.

Since we are now working under the hypothesis that: $$\displaystyle\prod_{i \in I}(1-x_i)=1-\displaystyle\sum_{i \in I}x_i, \tag{**}$$ the chain of inequalities from the above proof must consist only of equalities. In particular, relation $(^*)$ is an equality, which means that $x_{\alpha}\displaystyle\sum_{i \in J}x_i=0$. This relation leads to one of the following two cases:

  1. $x_{\alpha}=0$, in which case the original relation of equality $(^{**})$ reduces to the analogous one for family $y$ and by the induction hypothesis the support of $y$ is at most singleton. However, in this case the supports of $x$ and $y$ coincide and thus the claim concerning $x$ follows.
  2. $\displaystyle\sum_{i \in J}x_i=0$, which considered in combination with the fact that all the terms $x_i \geqslant 0$ are positive actually forces $x_i=0$ for all $i \in J$. This means that the support of $x$ is included in $\{\alpha\}$ and is therefore at most a singleton.
ΑΘΩ
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