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I have solved the question above and found that the Option C is correct. But I am unable to understand 2nd option. Can you help me with it?

My Attempt at solving the question:-

$$ I_n= \int_0^1 x^n dx $$ $$ I_n = \frac{1^{n+1} - 0^{n+1}}{n+1} $$ Option A: For $n = -1$ the integral does not exists.

Option C: For $n = 1,2,3... m$, the integral becomes $ \frac{1}{n+1}$ and consequently the product $I_1 I_2.... I_m$ becomes $\frac{1}{(m+1)!}$

Option D: We can see from above that $I_m ...... <I_3< I_2 < I_1$

Can you please help for Option B? Thank you!

1 Answers1

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Its_me is correct: The B question talks about the integrand, not the integral. The integrand is the function that is being integrated, in this case, $f(x) = x^n$ with $n < 0$. By unbounded, it means

  • For every $M > 0$, there is some $x \in (0,1)$ such that $|f(x)| > M$.

By finite, they just mean

  • For every $x \in (0,1), |f(x)| < \infty$, or more appropriately, that $f(x)$ is defined for every $x \in (0,1)$.

I trust you can show both, though if you haven't encountered a full definition of $x^n$ for irrational $n$ yet, you may have to skip those details you've never been taught.

Paul Sinclair
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