Suppose you have $x^2 - 2x -1 = 0$, as in the related question (Solving Quadratics Using Continued Fractions/Nonsimple to Simple Continued Fractions). Although that question did not go through the steps used to calculate $[2; \overline{2}]$, there is a particularly simple technique that can be used for such quadratics (constant of -1, coefficient of 1 for the linear term), which is to divide through by $x$ and rearrange to get $x = 2 + \frac{1}{x}$ in this example. Simple enough, but here are two things that puzzle me. The first is, suppose I rearranged as $x = \frac{1}{-2 + x}$ instead, getting $[-2;\overline{-2}]$ instead of $[2; \overline{2}]$. OK, I know continued fraction representations are not unique, but in calculating $[-2; \overline{-2}]$ I get $-r$ where $r = [2; \overline{2}] = 1 + \sqrt{2}$, while the quadratic formula gives $1 - \sqrt{2}$ for the other root.
The second thing I noticed was supposing I try the same basic technique on a quadratic with imaginary roots, say $x^2 + 2x + 2 = 0$, with roots $-1 \pm i$. It isn't a simple continued fraction, but dividing by $x$ and rearranging as before I get $x = -2 - \frac{2}{x}$. I'm not sure how to calculate a convergent for a non-simple continued fraction (and I haven't tried to use the technique in the referenced question yet to convert this to a simple continued fraction if it is possible to do that even), but if nothing else it doesn't look like this expression even converges. That would make sense, but I'm wondering if there is any connection to the correct answer anyway (analogous to a https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ramanujan_summation), and what the best intuition for this failure of a simple technique might be?